by Dr. Jerry Crigger
EBITDA is an abbreviation that just seems to roll off of the tongue when pronounced. Maybe that is why we tend to love it so. Whether you are in the camp that pronounces it “E-Bit-Da” or “E-Bit-D-A”, it is a powerful sounding abbreviation.
However, what is most important is what EBITDA means.
For purposes of example consider the following characteristics for a firm:
|
EBITDA
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$250,000
|
|
CPLTD (prior period)
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$100,000
|
|
Interest Expense
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$30,000
|
|
CAPEX (capital expenditures)
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$90,000
|
|
Depreciation
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$75,000
|
|
Tax Expense (35%)
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$50,750
|
Many commercial lenders and commercial loan analysts utilize the concept of Earnings Before Interest, Taxes, Depreciation and Amortization (EBITDA) as a measure of cash flow. Often, EBITDA is compared to the current portion of long-term debt (CPLTD) from the prior period plus interest from the current operating period as a measure of debt service capacity — i.e. EBITDA / CPLTD + Interest Expense.
This measure has material limitations related to debt service capacity for a firm.
EBITDA is a pre-tax measure, the primary component being operating profit. Contractually-obligated principal payments for a firm are paid with post-tax cash flow. Thus, to compare pre-tax EBITDA to post-tax CPLTD, principal payments should be adjusted by dividing the payment by 1-Tax rate. For example, assume a tax rate of 35%, a principal payment of $100,000, and an annual interest payment is $30,000. The necessary pre-tax operating profit necessary to meet a debt service test (assuming the covenant is written requiring only EBITDA / CPLT + Int.) of 1.2x would be: [($100,000 / (1 - .65)) + $30,000] = $183,846 * 1.2 = $220,615. Without this adjustment, a firm could meet the debt service covenant of 1.2x with only $156,000 of EBITDA.
EBITDA is also compared to various other cash use variables to measure different degrees of cash flow “coverage.” Often the coverage calculations are performed by systematically adding components to the denominator of the ratio in an effort to “build” various cash use layers in an effort to measure a firm’s ability to fully provide operating-style cash flow to cover all primary cash needs.
Let’s look at a few additional coverage measures utilizing EBITDA:
EBITDA / CPLTD + Interest + Taxes
This ratio is designed to resolve two issues: 1) by incorporating taxes into the denominator, the ratio theoretically eliminates the problem noted above by converting EBITDA to a post-tax number, thus allowing CPLTD to be used without tax consideration adjustments, and 2) the inclusion of Taxes in the denominator accepts the reality that taxes must be paid in order for a firm to remain in business.
In this case, the coverage ratio is calculated as follows: $250,000 / ($100,000 + $30,000 + $50,750) = 1.38x. If one believes that taxes must be considered an operating expense, the question becomes, “Why not include taxes in the numerator?”
This is a logical question, and the calculation is often changed to be: EBITDA - Taxes / CPLTD + Interest Expense. This will yield a different result than including taxes in the denominator as follows: $250,000 - $50,750 / $100,000 + $30,000 = $199,250 / $130,000 = 1.53x.
What then, is the correct conclusion? Does this firm have $1.38 in “cash flow” for every dollar in debt obligation and taxes, or $1.53 in “cash flow” for every dollar in debt obligation and taxes?
EBITDA / CPLTD + Interest Expense + Taxes + CAPEX
This ratio is designed to resolve the dilemma of considering depreciation as a cash flow source perpetually available to service debt. All firms must replace the portion of productive capacity that is depleted by operating activities, or the firm will eventually be unable to produce goods or services. Including CAPEX in the cash needs of the denominator resolves this issue. However, as with taxes, an argument may be made that CAPEX should be considered an operating expense rather than a “coverage” expense. Thus, CAPEX is often included in the numerator. But what is the correct value to include in CAPEX?
Should CAPEX be actual capital expenditures for the period? If so, what about the fact that most often a major portion of the expenditures are financed? If that is the case, the cash flows of an operating nature from the firm were not needed to fully fund that period’s CAPEX, and one solution would be to include only the “funded” portion of CAPEX (i.e. the portion funded by the firm as its equity in the expenditures).
Should CAPEX be “smoothed” to reflect trend spending and thus be averaged for inclusion in the calculation? This intuitively works well. However, to the extent that any amount other than actual CAPEX is used, the calculation relative to cash “coverage” becomes diluted.
Lastly, some analysts utilize “maintenance” CAPEX. Maintenance CAPEX is that level of capital expenditures necessary to maintain the productive capacity of the firm. The problem with accurate identification of this amount is that the financial statements of the firm do not provide any direct measure of this amount. Thus, an approximation is often chosen. The approximation may take the form of direct questioning of the financial officer of the subject firm. Many times, the approximation selected is simply an arbitrary percentage of current depreciation levels (e.g. 75%). As is evident with these approximations, the calculation is moving further and further away from accuracy as more estimations are included in the calculation.
As with the calculation above including Taxes, CAPEX may be considered a “necessary” operating-style expenditure that should be deducted from EBITDA rather than accounted for as a “coverage” need (and therefore included in the denominator). Both calculations are shown below to demonstrate the difference in conclusions: (For these calculations, actual CAPEX will be utilized)
- EBITDA / CPLTD + Int. Exp. + Taxes + CAPEX = $250,000 / $100,000 + $30,000 + $50,750 + $90,000 = 0.923x
- EBITDA - Taxes - CAPEX / CPLTD + Int. Exp. = $109,250 / $130,000 = 0.84x
Again, the question is: Did the firm generated operating-style cash flows equal to 92 cents for every dollar of debt service (principal + interest), capital expenditures, and taxes; or did it generate 84 cents for the same needs?
The calculations above highlight some of the insights that may be gained from utilizing EBITDA. They also serve to highlight some of the limitations of its use. EBITDA is strictly an income statement depiction of cash flows available to pay for the many needs of a firm. Notably absent from the calculations above are cash uses or sources provided by balance sheet changes, which may be significant. Changes in the level of trading assets (primarily Accounts Receivable and Inventory) relative to the support provided by trading liabilities (primarily Accounts Payable) are not considered when focusing on EBITDA. Thus, EBITDA is valid only when used with a “steady state” firm. (It could also be adjusted in the numerator for changes in working investment, although that adjustment is not traditional.)
EBITDA is an excellent analytical tool as part of a more robust analytical regimen. However, it is clearly a relative measure of cash flow available for various cash needs of a firm. As long as the analyst understands both its uses and limitations, the concept will be valid when taken in context with other analytical measures that combine to provide a clear impression of the credit-worthiness of a firm.